This question has been on my mind for awhile. I have written about it in myriad ways, from my course readings of
Dick,
McLuhan,
Turkle and
Baudrillard to my own
personal discomfort with online interactions. Through all of these posts, one thing remains as tough to solve for me as
proving the Reimann Hypothesis: is the nature of digital communication defined foremost by its "digital-ness" or do personal tendencies have a defining role in digital communication? Let me try to say it better: Are digital communications for extroverted and introverted people equally at risk for being shallow simply because the communication is digital?
